2-067 cisco

Question: 1

What is a characteristic of the Cisco Validated Design architectural selling approach?

A. This approach separates technologies based on customer buying patterns.

B. This approach integrates solutions by combining technologies that are aligned to customer buying patterns.

C. Although this approach supports verticalization, it is not aligned to partner programs. D. Although this approach is aligned to partner programs, it does not support verticalization.

Answer: B

Question: 2

Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they intermittently lose data and connections to

important servers. After investigation, you discover that the 802.1Q trunk between DSW111 and ASW1 is down. Even though the HSRP group 11 is being serviced by DSW112, you discover that the SVI for VLAN 11 is in the up state on DSW111. Which three Cisco Catalyst IOS commands should you use on DSW111 to find the source of this problem? (Choose three.)

A. show vtp status

B. show interfaces vlan 11 C. show standby vlan 11 brief D. show spanning-tree vlan 11

E. show interfaces mod/port trunk

Answer: B, D, E

Question: 3

Refer to the exhibit. For interface FastEthernet0/0, what will happen to dscp af11 traffic if the queue for class \"newclass\" reaches a depth of 32?

A. All packets will be dropped.

B. One out of ten packets will be dropped.

C. A random number of packets will be dropped.

D. No packets will be dropped until the queue depth reaches 40.

E. Packets will be dropped according to the exponential weight setting.

Answer: B

Question: 4

In which phase is a systems acceptance test plan developed and documented?

A. Implement B. Design C. Prepare D. Operate

Answer: B

Question: 5

What will happen if you issue the redundancy force-switchover command on a Catalyst 6500 Series Switch with redundant supervisor modules?

A. reset of the primary supervisor

B. manual switchover from standby to active supervisor C. manual switchover from active to standby supervisor

D. automatic switchover from active to standby on primary supervisor failure

Answer: C

Question: 6

When you issue the logging trap informational command, what happens?

A. An information trap is sent to the SNMP server.

B. Informational and debug messages are logged to the syslog server. C. All messages are sent to the logging host, where selections are made.

D. All messages from emergencies to informational are sent to the logging host.

Answer: D

Question: 7

Which protocols does Cisco NSF support?

A. IS-IS, EIGRP, SSO, BGP B. ISSU, OSPF, IS-IS C. IETF, OSPF, ISSU

D. EIGRP, BGP, OSPF, IS-IS

Answer: D

Question: 8

Why is there no need to configure complex overlay network topologies when using Cisco WAAS?

A. remote scheduling of software distribution B. comprehensive logs, reports, and graphs C. automatic discovery of Cisco WAEs D. content pre-positioning

Answer: C

Question: 9

Which command retrieves and displays information about each Cisco product in the form of a UDI?

A. show status B. show hardware C. show inventory D. show environment

Answer: C

Question: 10

Which three of the following steps are mandatory when configuring MPLS on Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

A. start LDP

B. enable CEF switching C. configure the MPLS ID D. disable IP TTL propagation

E. configure conditional label advertising

F. enable label switching on frame mode interfaces

Answer: A, B, F

Question: 11

What are two characteristics of the relationship between the Cisco PIN architecture and Cisco Validated Designs? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco is focusing on Cisco Validated Designs as a means to driving integrated networks. B. Cisco is focusing on the PIN architecture as a means to driving integrated networks.

C. The Cisco PIN architecture is a critical mechanism for supporting integrated markets because it can be implemented quickly.

D. The Cisco Validated Designs program provides critical mechanisms for supporting integrated markets because the mechanisms can be implemented quickly.

E. Cisco Validated Designs can be implemented quickly without customer input.

Answer: B, D

Question: 12

When HSRP is configured on a network, which two of these items are provided, which are shared between the routers that run HSRP? (Choose two.)

A. TCP-based hello packets

B. the impact of flapping links if timers are too low C. a shared single interface

D. the ability to track serial interfaces E. UDP-based hello packets

Answer: B, D

Question: 13

What is the final step of the core baselining process?

A. Implement threshold monitoring using RMON. B. Implement monitoring using SNMP or RMON.

C. Poll and record specific SNMP MIB objects from the device. D. Verify that SNMP MIB is supported in the relevant core device.

Answer: B

Question: 14

Which two differentiators make RSTP the preferred protocol for preventing Layer 2 loops in a switched network environment? (Choose two.)

A. Features such as UplinkFast and BackboneFast are compatible with RSTP.

B. An RSTP that is based on Cisco products generally performs better than the Cisco proprietary 802.1D enhancements.

C. Cisco proprietary enhancements are not transparent. D. Information about port roles is sent to all switches.

E. RSTPs that are based on Cisco products require no additional configuration.

Answer: B, E

Question: 15

Which switching engine enables the access control list lookup to be committed to hardware?

A. IETF B. PFC C. ASIC D. TCAM

Answer: B

Question: 16

Which service component would you typically perform prior to the handover to the customer's operations organization and involves running system operations to ensure that the solution is ready for production?

A. Systems Integration B. Acceptance Testing C. Skill Assessment D. Project Close Out E. Security Check

Answer: B

Question: 17

When you enter the interface command auto qos voip cisco-phone on a port at the edge of a network, how does the Cisco Catalyst switch detect if a Cisco IP Phone is connected to the port?

A. by snooping the CoS marking on the incoming frames

B. by using RTP hello messages between the switch port and the Cisco IP Phone C. by using CDP

D. by using DHCP snooping

E. by snooping the incoming 802.1Q VLAN tag

Answer: C

Question: 18

During which phase is a proposal developed and delivered?

A. Prepare B. Plan C. Design D. Operate

Answer: A

Question: 19

When an IP packet is Layer 3-switched from a source in one VLAN to a destination in another VLAN, which field in a packet will be rewritten?

A. Layer 2 TTL B. Layer 3 TTL

C. Layer 3 source address D. Layer 3 transport protocol E. Layer 3 destination address

Answer: B

Question: 20

Which of these correctly identifies the six phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services framework?

A. Prepare, Plan, Create, Implement, Operate, and Improve B. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and Optimize C. Prepare, Plan, Design, Apply, Operate, and Manage D. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate and Manage

Answer: B

Question: 21

Refer to the exhibit. A display of class maps for a configuration is shown in the exhibit. What will the class-map \"all-traffic\" match?

A. all voice traffic

B. all traffic with dscp 18 or dscp 43 C. all traffic with dscp 18 and dscp 43 D. all traffic with ip precedence 0 or 1 E. all traffic with ip precedence 4 and 5

Answer: B

Question: 22

In which service component of the optimize phase would you assess the routing and switching system and recommend activities such as optimizing device configurations, capacity planning, or traffic analysis?

A. Change Management B. Security Assessment C. Operations Assessment D. Security Administration

E. Operations Readiness Assessment F. Technology Assessment

Answer: F

Question: 23

Which term represents the mode that is used when the router stores log messages in RAM memory?

A. syslog logging B. terminal logging C. buffered logging D. console logging

Answer: C

Question: 24

Refer to the exhibit. MPLS has been enabled on router PE11. Which of these statements is correct regarding the output display shown in the exhibit?

A. CEF switching is not needed for MPLS operation.

B. CEF switching is only needed to forward labeled packets.

C. CEF switching is needed on both ingress and egress interfaces on which MPLS is enabled. D. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on egress interfaces that are sending IP packets on which the egress LSR performs the label imposition process.

E. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on ingress interfaces that are receiving IP packets on which the ingress LSR performs the label imposition process.

Answer: E

Question: 25

Which of the following statements about authentication responses and conditions is true? (Choose two.)

A. When a router receives a failure response, it stops querying authentication methods. B. When a router receives an error response, it stops querying authentication methods.

C. If the router receives a failure response from an authentication method, it queries the next method.

D. The router does not differentiate between failure and error responses; the authentication process is always interrupted.

E. If it receives no response from the authentication method, a router will determine the error condition on its own; the router also has the option to proceed to the next method in a list if configured accordingly.

Answer: A, E

Question: 26

Refer to the exhibit. This shows the NetFlow statistics for a router. You are analyzing the traffic pattern and you are interested in the percentage of packets between 32 and bytes in size and the number of flows in progress. Which of these identifies both numbers correctly?

A. 69.4%, 4061 B. 24.9%, 980 C. 69.4%, 35 D. 6.94%, 980

E. cannot be determined from this output

Answer: C

Question: 27

Why is it appropriate to use conditional label advertising when deploying MPLS?

A. to make CEF tables smaller

B. to enable label switching on the frame mode interface C. to restrict MPLS availability to predefined time periods D. to restrict label switching to a limited number of networks

E. to restrict end users from seeing the routers in the MPLS network

Answer: D

Question: 28

What are two characteristics of the Cisco Validated Design program? (Choose two.)

A. facilitates customer deployments that are less reliable

B. facilitates customer deployments that are more predictable C. separates products and technologies into individual portfolios D. incorporates products and technologies into a broad portfolio E. strives to protect access to design documentation

Answer: B, D

Question: 29

Which dedicated VPN acceleration module for the Cisco 7200 and 7300 Series Routers supports the latest encryption standards?

A. Cisco Network Assistant B. Cisco IPS C. AES

D. Cisco VAM2+

Answer: D

Question: 30

Which Cisco solution was developed to let you create separate networks on one SAN; thus providing you with improved availability, security, and backup?

A. Cisco Direct Attached Storage

B. Cisco Direct Storage Area Network C. Cisco Virtual Storage Area Network D. Cisco Virtual Attached Storage Network

Answer: C

Question: 31

What is the first step of the core baselining process?

A. Verify that the SNMP MIB is supported in the relevant core device. B. Implement monitoring using SNMP or RMON.

C. Poll and record specific SNMP MIB objects from the device. D. Implement threshold monitoring using RMON.

Answer: D

Question: 32

What is the final step that should take place when characterizing an existing network?

A. Form an impression about the network.

B. Prepare and add to the network description.

C. Use traffic analysis to augment organizational input. D. Perform a network audit.

Answer: C

Question: 33

Which description best characterizes the Cisco mobility solution?

A. provides high-level integrated security from the wireless access point to the client and automatically encrypts voice and data in transit

B. authenticates users and devices so that it is impossible for a rogue device to be connected to the network

C. allows you to centralize management, automate repetitive tasks, and provision IP services easily

D. centralizes your infrastructure and allows you to share resources more effectively by combining separate data centers into an interconnected SAN

Answer: A

Question: 34

Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?

A. BGP NSF awareness is enabled

B. SSO for BGP NSF capability is enabled C. BGP graceful restart awareness is enabled

D. 10.11.1.187 is configured as an NSF-capable BGP neighbor

Answer: A

Question: 35

How can Cisco NetFlow be used to aid in the operation and troubleshooting of QoS issues?

A. NetFlow can report on the number of traffic matches for each class map in a configured QoS policy configuration.

B. NetFlow records can be used to understand traffic profiles per class of service for data, voice, and video traffic.

C. NetFlow can discover the protocols in use and automatically adjust QoS traffic classes to meet policy-map requirements.

D. NetFlow can be configured to identify voice and video traffic flows and place them into a low-latency queue for expedited processing.

Answer: B

Question: 36

Which three connection options are available when configuring a switch port to be part of a private VLAN? (Choose three.)

A. isolated mode B. switchport mode C. modular mode D. community mode E. promiscuous mode F. global mode

Answer: A, D, E

Question: 37

What are two outcomes of deploying virtual SANs? (Choose two.)

A. increased administration B. improved availability C. reduced backup D. increased security

E. greater storage demand

Answer: B, D

Question: 38

Which two benefits are provided when Cisco enterprise solutions are employed across all places in the network? (Choose two.)

A. regular upgrade process B. multivendor support C. cost savings D. product variety

E. well-tested interoperability

Answer: C, E

Question: 39

What are the characteristics of the process of documenting the layers of an existing network?

A. begins with gathering organizational input that may be inaccurate

B. begins with gathering organizational input that does not need to be supplemented by a network audit

C. requires a network audit to support some upgrade decisions D. requires a network audit to support any network restructuring E. provides reliable input for verifying network consistency F. does not provide reliable input for designing changes

Answer: A, D, E

Question: 40

Compared to the traditional Layer 2 and Layer 3 system, how does the Cisco Catalyst 6500 VSS 1440 simplify the network?

A. provides loop-free technology B. manages additional routing peers C. provides HSRP/VRRP

D. manages two nodes and configuration

Answer: A

Question: 41

What are the three main parts of a syslog message? (Choose three.)

A. severity level B. facility

C. log message name D. time stamp E. error codes F. access privilege

Answer: A, C, D

Question: 42

Which three statements correctly describe the Cisco Validated Designs program? (Choose three.)

A. includes three design levels

B. incorporates products and technologies into enterprise, service provider, and commercial systems

C. extends the value of designs through a sustained development plan D. does not factor customer input design process

E. facilitates faster and more reliable customer deployments F. incorporates a narrow range of technologies and products

Answer: B, C, E

Question: 43

What is the result when all Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture components are designed with interoperability in mind?

A. high availability

B. strengthened security

C. improved connectivity options D. continuity of service

Answer: D

Question: 44

Which tool enables easy configuration and monitoring of Cisco ISRs?

A. Cisco MWAM B. Cisco SDM

C. Cisco NAC Appliance

D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express

Answer: B

Question: 45

How are RIP routing contexts implemented in MPLS VPN?

A. RIP does not support routing contexts

B. routing contexts are implemented in a single routing process

C. routing contexts are implemented using multiple routing processes

D. routing contexts are implemented as several instances of a single routing process E. routing contexts are implemented as a single instance of several routing processes

Answer: D

Question: 46

Which component of the Cisco 800, 1800, 2800, and 3800 Series ISRs can be used to enable important security and storage capabilities?

A. onboard USB 1.1 ports B. inline PoE

C. Ethernet backup port D. BRI

Answer: A

Question: 47

What are the three specific characteristics of the Cisco SAN solution for the data center? (Choose three.)

A. It provides multiprotocol support.

B. It provides improved availability, strong security, and business continuance measures. C. It enables you to connect Cisco VSAN technology and DAS technology.

D. It reduces cost and complexity by providing an easy transition to evolving technologies. E. It allows you to create separate networks on the VSAN.

F. It allows you to migrate to new technologies without a complete equipment upgrade.

Answer: A, D, F

Question: 48

Refer to the exhibit. For interface FastEthernet0/0, what will happen to dscp af11 traffic if the queue for class \"newclass\" reaches a depth of 40?

A. All packets will be dropped.

B. One out of ten packets will be dropped.

C. A random number of packets will be dropped.

D. No packets will be dropped until the queue depth reaches 265.

E. Packets will be dropped according to the exponential weight setting.

Answer: A

Question: 49

What is the correct sequence of commands to configure and verify SRM with SSO redundancy?

A. mode sso, redundancy, show redundancy states B. show redundancy states, mode sso, redundancy C. redundancy, mode sso, show redundancy states D. show redundancy states, redundancy, mode sso

Answer: C

Question: 50

Which tool employs an intuitive GUI to apply common services across Cisco switches, routers, and access points?

A. Cisco VAM2+

B. Cisco Network Assistant C. Cisco SDM D. Cisco IPS

Answer: B

Question: 51

Your customer wants to build a network for a financial trading floor that has a requirement for multiple high-value transactions, which are also vital to the customer. What are the two most critical requirements? (Choose two.)

A. no single point of failure

B. trading database server location

C. redundant application servers location D. deterministic response to all failures E. determine which protocol to use

Answer: A, D

Question: 52

Refer to the exhibit. As shown in the configuration, RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol. Which of these statements is correct?

A. Though preferred, it is not necessary that the RIP parameters be specified in the VRF. B. Though RIPv2 is specified in the configuration, any version of RIP supports VRFs.

C. On the receiving end, the RIP hop count is copied into a BGP extended community attribute. D. On the sending end, the RIP hop count is copied into the BGP multi-exit discriminator attribute. E. Because RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol, the redistribution commands in the configuration are not necessary because redistribution occurs automatically between RIP and BGP.

Answer: D

Question: 53

On a Cisco Catalyst switch, which configuration command is used to apply a VACL named \"test\" to filter the traffic within VLAN100?

A. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test B. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test in C. interface vlan 100

ip access-group test out

D. vlan filter test vlan-list 100 E. vlan access-map test 100

Answer: D

Question: 54

Which two of the following statements are true about HSRP load sharing? (Choose two)

A. It is achieved by using more than one HSRP group.

B. It is done in regards to either round robin or weight basis.

C. It is used to offload the active router in a certain HSRP group.

D. Single group HSRP is used to achieve more efficient link utilization. E. The return traffic is influenced by HSRP load sharing configuration.

Answer: A, C

Question: 55

While troubleshooting a network outage, you discover that an employee brought a switch from home into the office to connect additional equipment to the network. In order to increase his speed, he connected this switch to both network ports in his office, resulting in a bridge loop. Which of these can you implement to prevent future occurrences of this issue?

A. RSTP B. root guard C. BPDU guard D. GLBP

Answer: C

Question: 56

What is a primary objective of the security architecture assessment?

A. document power and UPS availability

B. to integrate routing and switching components C. create a design specification document

D. document the customer's current and future technology projects

Answer: B

Question: 57

You are considering deploying the Cisco SSL VPN AIM module in a Cisco 1800 Series Router. Which benefit should you expect?

A. to improve performance exclusively for SSL VPN applications

B. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications

C. to improve performance for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with IPsec encryption taking place in hardware

D. to improve performance up to 200% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with encryption taking place in hardware

E. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with SSL encryption taking place in hardware

Answer: D

Question: 58

Which architecture provides a core infrastructure that allows customers to capitalize rapidly on changing business requirements?

A. data center B. campus C. branch D. teleworker

Answer: B

Question: 59

Which PIN architecture works with DMVPN, GETVPN, and Ethernet?

A. data center B. teleworker C. branch D. campus

Answer: C

Question: 60

When implementing MPLS VPNs between CE and PE routers, which of these statements is correct?

A. If using IS-IS as the PE-CE routing protocol, no redistribution is required.

B. If using static routes between the CE and PE routers, no redistribution of other VPN routes is required.

C. If the PE-CE protocol is not BGP, redistribution of other VPN routes from MP-BGP is required. D. If RIP is the routing protocol that is used between the PE-CE routers, no redistribution is required, but any other protocol will require redistribution.

E. If using OSPF or EIGRP as the PE-CE routing protocol, redistribution is not required, but any other protocol or static route will require redistribution.

Answer: C